d. The wonders of this world are too great to enjoy in a short life.

13. In Sidney’s “Sonnet 31,” what does the moon symbolize?

a. lost chances
b. natural beauty c. all life on earth

d. a constant ideal

14. Which characteristic of Shakespearean sonnets is found in Sonnets 29, 106, 116, and 130?

a. fourteen lines plus a rhymed couplet
b. an idealized view of love and life c. a conclusion in the final two lines

d. an irregular rhyme scheme

15. What is the theme of “Sonnet 29”?

a. The speaker must learn to live with his disappointments.
b. The speaker’s love makes up for all his problems. c. Life’s greatest disappointment is to live alone.

d. Even a hopeless love is better than any other experience.

16. In “Sonnet 106,” Shakespeare talks about his beloved’s beauty. What does he mean when he says we “lack tongues to praise”?

a. We do not like to make complements.
b. We do not have the skill to describe her beauty. c. We are no longer able to say romantic things.

d. We do not say certain things aloud.

17. How does the sonnet form affect the content of a poem?

a. It uses chronological order in the first three quatrains.
b. It follows the same rhyme scheme throughout. c. It shortens ideas so they fit into a set structure.

d. It requires that its content be about romantic love.

18. Where does the rhymed couplet appear in a Shakespearean sonnet?

a. at the end of each quatrain
b. at the beginning of each quatrain c. in the first two lines of the poem

d. in the final two lines of the poem

19. How does Shakespeare describe love in “Sonnet 116”?

a. Love is eternal.
b. Love is humorous. c. Love is brief.

d. Love is harsh.

20. Read these final lines of “Sonnet 116” and determine what can be said of the speaker’s words: “If this be error, and upon me proved, / I never writ, nor no man ever loved.”

a. The speaker feels strongly about his view of love.
b. The speaker’s feelings faded quickly after he wrote the poem. c. The speaker admits that he has exaggerated his thoughts about love.

d. The speaker realizes that his feelings of love will never be returned.

21. Which lines rhyme in each Shakespearean sonnet?

a. lines 1 and 2; lines 3 and 4
b. lines 1 and 4; lines 2 and 3 c. lines 1 and 3; lines 2 and 4

d. lines 3 and 4

22. What is the tone of “Sonnet 130”?

a. hopeful and happy
b. anxious and sad c. serious and angry

d. humorous and realistic

23. What does the speaker do in each quatrain of “Sonnet 130”?

a. He praises his beloved.
b. He makes fun of his beloved. c. He speaks to his beloved.

d. He laments the loss of his beloved.

24. Which of the following sentences uses the word “sullen” correctly?

a. The audience gave a sullen gasp as the play began.
b. The necklace was sullen, and he could not afford it. c. A sullen look came over his face, and he shook with laughter.

d. He sat with a sullen expression after his beloved told him good-bye.

25. Shakespeare begins “Sonnet 116” by saying, “Let me not to the marriage of true minds admit impediments.” Which word is closest in meaning to “impediments”?

a. statues
b. obstacles c. arguments

d. violations

26. Which sentence uses the bolded vocabulary word correctly?

a. Time alters everyone’s looks. b. Her beauty was no chronicle to his feelings for her. c. He knew that in the impediments of history, no one had been more lovely. d. In prefiguring the history of love, he knew she had no equal.

27. What does the younger son do in “The Parable of the Prodigal Son”?

a. He stays at home and works in the fields.
b. He disobeys his father and runs away. c. He cheats his brother and his father.

d. He wastes the money his father gives him.

28. Read the following passage and determine what it implies about beliefs in the Elizabethan age: “I know I have but the body of a weak and feeble woman; but I have the heart of a king, and of a king of England, too. . .”

a. Women were as heartfelt as kings.
b. Women were considered brave and strong. c. Kings were not considered as strong as queens.

d. Women were considered to be frail and helpless.

29. What do Queen Elizabeth’s words “my realm,” “my kingdom,” and “my people” imply about her view of her role as a monarch?

a. They showed her lack of belief in her country.
b. They showed that she identified herself as part of England. c. They exhibited her sense of ownership.

d. They explained her fear and rage.

30. What historical event inspired Queen Elizabeth to give her speech to her troops?

a. Spanish plans to invade England
b. the defeat of the Spanish Armada c. the retreat of English troops

d. the English victory over Spain

31. Why didn’t some advisors want Elizabeth to go before her troops?

a. She did not speak Spanish.
b. They feared the troops might try to hurt her. c. The troops were Hessian mercenaries who only spoke German.

d. They were afraid she would offend England’s American allies.

32. Queen Elizabeth was the daughter of

a. Henry VIII.
b. Catherine of Aragon. c. Mary Queen of Scots.

d. both “a” and “b.”

33. Queen Elizabeth appeared before her troops in a silver breastplate to emphasize her point that

a. she was ready to fight with them if necessary.
b. she had more power than they. c. she wasn’t afraid of them.

d. she was taking over as general.

34. Queen Elizabeth promised her troops

a. extra compensation if they defeated Spain.
b. the money they were owed. c. a pension for the rest of their lives.

d. none of the above.

35. Determine the meaning of this phrase from “Psalm 23:” “I will dwell in the house of the Lord forever.”

a. I will have to leave the Lord’s house some day.
b. I will live with the Lord after my death. c. Serving the Lord is the right thing to do even though it offers little reward.

d. I am a prisoner of the Lord’s making.

36. Determine the literary device used in this line from Psalm 23: “The Lord is my shepherd; I shall not want.”

a. analogy
b. narrative c. metaphor

d. parable

37. What does Jesus say happens to the fowls of the air in “The Sermon on the Mount”?

a. God takes care of them.
b. Their lives are meaningless because they do not believe in God. c. They must fight daily to eat and to survive.

d. They survive only because they have barns to live in.

38. In “The Sermon on the Mount,” what does Jesus tell people they must do?

a. They must serve only God and not seek wealth on earth.
b. They should help care for nature’s creatures. c. They should teach others about the word of God.

d. They should try to help each other and help feed the hungry.

39. Determine what this passage from “The Sermon on the Mount” is saying: “Is not the life more than meat, and the body than raiment?”

a. God will provide people with food and clothing.
b. The spirit is more important than the physical body. c. People should work to earn their food and clothing.

d. Food and clothing are easy to obtain.

40. What is the main idea of “The Parable of the Prodigal Son”?

a. sibling rivalry
b. selfishness c. forgiveness

d. working hard

Part B: True or False

Determine whether each statement is true or false.

41. Marlowe and Raleigh intended to insult each other through poetry.

a. true

b. false

42. Sidney’s reference to the moon is an example of a kenning.

a. true

b. false

43. “Psalm 23” is often read at funerals.

a. true

b. false

44. The Renaissance began in England during the 1300s.

a. true

b. false

45. The Renaissance was a time in which much new thought appeared.

a. true

b. false

46. The longing for a more simple past appears in pastoral poetry.

a. true

b. false

47. Queen Elizabeth tried to control her troops with fear.

a. true

b. false

48. A Shakespearean sonnet contains three quatrains.

a. true

b. false

49. The King James Bible was commissioned by King James.

a. true

b. false

50. The King James Bible was written by groups of priests.

a. true

b. false

When you have completed this evaluation, use the tools on this page to submit it for grading. You may only submit this evaluation one time.